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The mishna in Sotah 3:8 says, in a list of differences in halacha between men and women:

A man is sold for his theft [i.e., to repay it], a woman is not sold for her theft. (Sefaria translation)

The clarification that the sale is for repayment comes from the g'mara, which doesn't elaborate further. A thief is required to compensate the victim; a man who cannot do so is sold but a woman can't be sold -- so how is the victim of a female thief compensated?

Does the obligation fall on her husband (if married) or father (if not)? That would only work if she isn't a widow, divorced, or an orphan. How does the victim of a poor female thief get compensated -- or doesn't he?

It would seem from the Rambam (Hil. Geneivah 3:12) that she bears the debt until she can afford to pay it off:

הָאִישׁ נִמְכָּר בִּגְנֵבָתוֹ אֲבָל לֹא הָאִשָּׁה. וְדָבָר זֶה מִפִּי הַקַּבָּלָה. וְאֵין הַגַּנָּב נִמְכָּר אֶלָּא בְּקֶרֶן אֲבָל בְּכֶפֶל אוֹ בְּתַשְׁלוּמֵי אַרְבָּעָה וַחֲמִשָּׁה אֵינוֹ נִמְכָּר אֶלָּא הֲרֵי זֶה עָלָיו חוֹב עַד שֶׁיַּעֲשִׁיר:

A man is sold for his theft, but not a woman; this matter is [known] by tradition. A thief is only sold for the principal; for the double or four- and five-times payment he is not sold, but rather the debt is upon him until he gains wealth.

Similarly, it would seem, a woman bears the debt until she can pay it off.