Htydjtk

Sources like Exodus 12:48,49 lead me to believe, that righteous converts/ proselytes(ger tzedek) became full-fledged citizens and members of the nation of Israel.

On the other hand, I know that the land of ancient Israel was divided according to the ancestral affiliation. Moreover, land could not be sold indefinitely (Lev. 25:23) and jubilee years often reverted the purchases to the original owners.

My question is - how do proselytes fit into this land-allocation system if they did not have any ancestors from any of the tribes? Did they formally join one of the tribes after the conversion and thus were assigned a share of land? Was it possible for a proselyte to obtain land that would be inherited by his family during the following generations - that means obtaining the land not in a way that would revert the ownership to the original owner, native Israelite during jubilee year?

Ma'aser Sheini 5:14 says clearly that converts do not get a portion in the land.

מִכָּאן אָמְרוּ, יִשְׂרָאֵל וּמַמְזֵרִים מִתְוַדִּים, אֲבָל לֹא גֵרִים וְלֹא עֲבָדִים מְשֻׁחְרָרִים, שֶׁאֵין לָהֶם חֵלֶק בָּאָרֶץ.

From here they said, Jews and Mamzers admit, but not converts, nor freed slaves, for they do not have a portion in the land.

(Admission in this context refers to saying a passage from Deuteronomy 26 which refers to various gifts which one must take from his property. "From here" refers to the verse "and bless Your nation Israel and the land which you have given to us," which is said as a part of this procedure.)