A question about partitioning positivie integers into finitely many arithmetic progresions












2












$begingroup$


Prove or disprove that if we partition positive integers into finitely many arithmetic progressions then there will be at least one arithmetic progression whose difference and initial term are equal.



A variant of this problems asks to prove that there will be at least one AP whose difference divides the initial term, which has an elementary proof. I suspect the same AP will have the initial term equal to the difference. But I cannot prove it.










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  • 2




    $begingroup$
    What is the origin of this question? Usually if you ask to "prove" something you should have some strong evidence that the proof exists.
    $endgroup$
    – Fedor Petrov
    6 hours ago






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    Sorry I should’ve asked for counter example also. I have edited the question now. The source is the variant mentioned below the main question which is an exercise from “A Walk Through Combinatorics”.
    $endgroup$
    – John
    5 hours ago
















2












$begingroup$


Prove or disprove that if we partition positive integers into finitely many arithmetic progressions then there will be at least one arithmetic progression whose difference and initial term are equal.



A variant of this problems asks to prove that there will be at least one AP whose difference divides the initial term, which has an elementary proof. I suspect the same AP will have the initial term equal to the difference. But I cannot prove it.










share|cite









New contributor




John is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.







$endgroup$








  • 2




    $begingroup$
    What is the origin of this question? Usually if you ask to "prove" something you should have some strong evidence that the proof exists.
    $endgroup$
    – Fedor Petrov
    6 hours ago






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    Sorry I should’ve asked for counter example also. I have edited the question now. The source is the variant mentioned below the main question which is an exercise from “A Walk Through Combinatorics”.
    $endgroup$
    – John
    5 hours ago














2












2








2





$begingroup$


Prove or disprove that if we partition positive integers into finitely many arithmetic progressions then there will be at least one arithmetic progression whose difference and initial term are equal.



A variant of this problems asks to prove that there will be at least one AP whose difference divides the initial term, which has an elementary proof. I suspect the same AP will have the initial term equal to the difference. But I cannot prove it.










share|cite









New contributor




John is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.







$endgroup$




Prove or disprove that if we partition positive integers into finitely many arithmetic progressions then there will be at least one arithmetic progression whose difference and initial term are equal.



A variant of this problems asks to prove that there will be at least one AP whose difference divides the initial term, which has an elementary proof. I suspect the same AP will have the initial term equal to the difference. But I cannot prove it.







arithmetic-progression elementary-proofs






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Check out our Code of Conduct.











share|cite









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edited 5 hours ago







John













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asked 7 hours ago









JohnJohn

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John is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
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New contributor





John is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.






John is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.








  • 2




    $begingroup$
    What is the origin of this question? Usually if you ask to "prove" something you should have some strong evidence that the proof exists.
    $endgroup$
    – Fedor Petrov
    6 hours ago






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    Sorry I should’ve asked for counter example also. I have edited the question now. The source is the variant mentioned below the main question which is an exercise from “A Walk Through Combinatorics”.
    $endgroup$
    – John
    5 hours ago














  • 2




    $begingroup$
    What is the origin of this question? Usually if you ask to "prove" something you should have some strong evidence that the proof exists.
    $endgroup$
    – Fedor Petrov
    6 hours ago






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    Sorry I should’ve asked for counter example also. I have edited the question now. The source is the variant mentioned below the main question which is an exercise from “A Walk Through Combinatorics”.
    $endgroup$
    – John
    5 hours ago








2




2




$begingroup$
What is the origin of this question? Usually if you ask to "prove" something you should have some strong evidence that the proof exists.
$endgroup$
– Fedor Petrov
6 hours ago




$begingroup$
What is the origin of this question? Usually if you ask to "prove" something you should have some strong evidence that the proof exists.
$endgroup$
– Fedor Petrov
6 hours ago




1




1




$begingroup$
Sorry I should’ve asked for counter example also. I have edited the question now. The source is the variant mentioned below the main question which is an exercise from “A Walk Through Combinatorics”.
$endgroup$
– John
5 hours ago




$begingroup$
Sorry I should’ve asked for counter example also. I have edited the question now. The source is the variant mentioned below the main question which is an exercise from “A Walk Through Combinatorics”.
$endgroup$
– John
5 hours ago










1 Answer
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$begingroup$

Any progression (if they are all infinite, of course, but otherwise the statement is clearly wrong) should have its initial term $a$ not greater than the difference $d$. Indeed, if $a>d$, and $a-d$ is covered by another progression $P$ with difference $d_1$, then $a-d+dd_1$ is covered twice --- a contradiction. Therefore if $a$ is divisible by $d$, we must have $a=d$. And such $a$ exists as you noted in OP (a short proof: take a progression which contains the product of all differences).






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    $begingroup$

    Any progression (if they are all infinite, of course, but otherwise the statement is clearly wrong) should have its initial term $a$ not greater than the difference $d$. Indeed, if $a>d$, and $a-d$ is covered by another progression $P$ with difference $d_1$, then $a-d+dd_1$ is covered twice --- a contradiction. Therefore if $a$ is divisible by $d$, we must have $a=d$. And such $a$ exists as you noted in OP (a short proof: take a progression which contains the product of all differences).






    share|cite|improve this answer











    $endgroup$


















      5












      $begingroup$

      Any progression (if they are all infinite, of course, but otherwise the statement is clearly wrong) should have its initial term $a$ not greater than the difference $d$. Indeed, if $a>d$, and $a-d$ is covered by another progression $P$ with difference $d_1$, then $a-d+dd_1$ is covered twice --- a contradiction. Therefore if $a$ is divisible by $d$, we must have $a=d$. And such $a$ exists as you noted in OP (a short proof: take a progression which contains the product of all differences).






      share|cite|improve this answer











      $endgroup$
















        5












        5








        5





        $begingroup$

        Any progression (if they are all infinite, of course, but otherwise the statement is clearly wrong) should have its initial term $a$ not greater than the difference $d$. Indeed, if $a>d$, and $a-d$ is covered by another progression $P$ with difference $d_1$, then $a-d+dd_1$ is covered twice --- a contradiction. Therefore if $a$ is divisible by $d$, we must have $a=d$. And such $a$ exists as you noted in OP (a short proof: take a progression which contains the product of all differences).






        share|cite|improve this answer











        $endgroup$



        Any progression (if they are all infinite, of course, but otherwise the statement is clearly wrong) should have its initial term $a$ not greater than the difference $d$. Indeed, if $a>d$, and $a-d$ is covered by another progression $P$ with difference $d_1$, then $a-d+dd_1$ is covered twice --- a contradiction. Therefore if $a$ is divisible by $d$, we must have $a=d$. And such $a$ exists as you noted in OP (a short proof: take a progression which contains the product of all differences).







        share|cite|improve this answer














        share|cite|improve this answer



        share|cite|improve this answer








        edited 1 hour ago

























        answered 4 hours ago









        Fedor PetrovFedor Petrov

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        49.6k5114230






















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