Give an example of a function that is bounded and continuous on the interval [0, 1) but not uniformly...












4












$begingroup$


My thoughts was to take $f(x) =cos(frac 1x) $ for all $ x in [0,1)$ as I know this function is continous from $[0,1)$ and is definitely not uniformly continuous as it oscilates non-uniformly. My trouble is with the proof.



To prove continuity would I:



Fix $x_0 in [0,1), epsilon>0.$ We will show that there exists $delta>0$ such that if $|x-x_0|<delta$ then $|cos(frac 1x) -cos(frac 1{x_0})|<epsilon$



Now I am stuck as to how I could simplify $|cos(frac 1x) -cos(frac 1{x_0})|$ or what $delta$ to choose. Any help would be appreciated.










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$endgroup$








  • 2




    $begingroup$
    You function is actually not defined at $x=0$.
    $endgroup$
    – Arctic Char
    19 hours ago










  • $begingroup$
    What would you suggest as a function that I could use?
    $endgroup$
    – abcdefg
    19 hours ago










  • $begingroup$
    Why would you consider $cos (1/x)$ in the first place?
    $endgroup$
    – Arctic Char
    19 hours ago










  • $begingroup$
    It was the first function I thought of that was continuous but not uniformly continuous.
    $endgroup$
    – abcdefg
    19 hours ago






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    @TheoBendit $frac1{x-1}$ is unbounded.
    $endgroup$
    – José Carlos Santos
    19 hours ago
















4












$begingroup$


My thoughts was to take $f(x) =cos(frac 1x) $ for all $ x in [0,1)$ as I know this function is continous from $[0,1)$ and is definitely not uniformly continuous as it oscilates non-uniformly. My trouble is with the proof.



To prove continuity would I:



Fix $x_0 in [0,1), epsilon>0.$ We will show that there exists $delta>0$ such that if $|x-x_0|<delta$ then $|cos(frac 1x) -cos(frac 1{x_0})|<epsilon$



Now I am stuck as to how I could simplify $|cos(frac 1x) -cos(frac 1{x_0})|$ or what $delta$ to choose. Any help would be appreciated.










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$








  • 2




    $begingroup$
    You function is actually not defined at $x=0$.
    $endgroup$
    – Arctic Char
    19 hours ago










  • $begingroup$
    What would you suggest as a function that I could use?
    $endgroup$
    – abcdefg
    19 hours ago










  • $begingroup$
    Why would you consider $cos (1/x)$ in the first place?
    $endgroup$
    – Arctic Char
    19 hours ago










  • $begingroup$
    It was the first function I thought of that was continuous but not uniformly continuous.
    $endgroup$
    – abcdefg
    19 hours ago






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    @TheoBendit $frac1{x-1}$ is unbounded.
    $endgroup$
    – José Carlos Santos
    19 hours ago














4












4








4


2



$begingroup$


My thoughts was to take $f(x) =cos(frac 1x) $ for all $ x in [0,1)$ as I know this function is continous from $[0,1)$ and is definitely not uniformly continuous as it oscilates non-uniformly. My trouble is with the proof.



To prove continuity would I:



Fix $x_0 in [0,1), epsilon>0.$ We will show that there exists $delta>0$ such that if $|x-x_0|<delta$ then $|cos(frac 1x) -cos(frac 1{x_0})|<epsilon$



Now I am stuck as to how I could simplify $|cos(frac 1x) -cos(frac 1{x_0})|$ or what $delta$ to choose. Any help would be appreciated.










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$




My thoughts was to take $f(x) =cos(frac 1x) $ for all $ x in [0,1)$ as I know this function is continous from $[0,1)$ and is definitely not uniformly continuous as it oscilates non-uniformly. My trouble is with the proof.



To prove continuity would I:



Fix $x_0 in [0,1), epsilon>0.$ We will show that there exists $delta>0$ such that if $|x-x_0|<delta$ then $|cos(frac 1x) -cos(frac 1{x_0})|<epsilon$



Now I am stuck as to how I could simplify $|cos(frac 1x) -cos(frac 1{x_0})|$ or what $delta$ to choose. Any help would be appreciated.







real-analysis continuity examples-counterexamples uniform-continuity






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share|cite|improve this question








edited 18 hours ago









José Carlos Santos

173k23133241




173k23133241










asked 19 hours ago









abcdefgabcdefg

525220




525220








  • 2




    $begingroup$
    You function is actually not defined at $x=0$.
    $endgroup$
    – Arctic Char
    19 hours ago










  • $begingroup$
    What would you suggest as a function that I could use?
    $endgroup$
    – abcdefg
    19 hours ago










  • $begingroup$
    Why would you consider $cos (1/x)$ in the first place?
    $endgroup$
    – Arctic Char
    19 hours ago










  • $begingroup$
    It was the first function I thought of that was continuous but not uniformly continuous.
    $endgroup$
    – abcdefg
    19 hours ago






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    @TheoBendit $frac1{x-1}$ is unbounded.
    $endgroup$
    – José Carlos Santos
    19 hours ago














  • 2




    $begingroup$
    You function is actually not defined at $x=0$.
    $endgroup$
    – Arctic Char
    19 hours ago










  • $begingroup$
    What would you suggest as a function that I could use?
    $endgroup$
    – abcdefg
    19 hours ago










  • $begingroup$
    Why would you consider $cos (1/x)$ in the first place?
    $endgroup$
    – Arctic Char
    19 hours ago










  • $begingroup$
    It was the first function I thought of that was continuous but not uniformly continuous.
    $endgroup$
    – abcdefg
    19 hours ago






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    @TheoBendit $frac1{x-1}$ is unbounded.
    $endgroup$
    – José Carlos Santos
    19 hours ago








2




2




$begingroup$
You function is actually not defined at $x=0$.
$endgroup$
– Arctic Char
19 hours ago




$begingroup$
You function is actually not defined at $x=0$.
$endgroup$
– Arctic Char
19 hours ago












$begingroup$
What would you suggest as a function that I could use?
$endgroup$
– abcdefg
19 hours ago




$begingroup$
What would you suggest as a function that I could use?
$endgroup$
– abcdefg
19 hours ago












$begingroup$
Why would you consider $cos (1/x)$ in the first place?
$endgroup$
– Arctic Char
19 hours ago




$begingroup$
Why would you consider $cos (1/x)$ in the first place?
$endgroup$
– Arctic Char
19 hours ago












$begingroup$
It was the first function I thought of that was continuous but not uniformly continuous.
$endgroup$
– abcdefg
19 hours ago




$begingroup$
It was the first function I thought of that was continuous but not uniformly continuous.
$endgroup$
– abcdefg
19 hours ago




1




1




$begingroup$
@TheoBendit $frac1{x-1}$ is unbounded.
$endgroup$
– José Carlos Santos
19 hours ago




$begingroup$
@TheoBendit $frac1{x-1}$ is unbounded.
$endgroup$
– José Carlos Santos
19 hours ago










2 Answers
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4












$begingroup$

Take $f(x)=cosleft(frac1{1-x}right)$. If it was uniformly continuous, then, for each $varepsilon>0$, there would be some $delta>0$ such that $lvert x-yrvert<deltaimpliesbigllvert f(x)-f(y)bigrrvert<varepsilon$. But this is not true. Take $varepsilon=1$. Since there are values of $x$ arbitrarily close to $1$ such that $f(x)=1$ and there are values of $x$ arbitrarily close to $1$ such that $f(x)=-1$, then, no matter how small $delta$ is, you will always be able to find examples of numbers $x,yin[0,1)$ such that $lvert x-yrvert<delta$ and that $bigllvert f(x)-f(y)bigrrvert=2>varepsilon$






share|cite|improve this answer









$endgroup$





















    4












    $begingroup$

    Here's some intuition:



    The Heine-Cantor theorem tells us that any function between two metric spaces that is continuous on a compact set is also uniformly continuous on that set (see here for discussion). Next, if $f:X rightarrow Y$ is a uniformly continuous function, it is easy to show that the restriction of $f$ to any subset of $X$ is itself uniformly continuous*. Therefore, the functions $[0,1) to mathbb{R}$ that are continuous but not uniformly continuous are those functions that cannot be extended so as to be continuous on $[0,1]$.



    For example, consider the function $f:[0,1) to mathbb{R}$ defined such that $f(x) = x$. We can extend $f$ to $[0,1]$ by defining $f(1) = 1$, and this extension is a continuous function over a compact set (hence it is uniformly continuous). So the restriction of this extension to $[0,1)$—i.e. the original function—is necessarily also uniformly continuous per (*) above.



    How can we find a continuous function on $[0,1)$ that cannot be continuously extended to $[0,1]$? There are two ways:



    $qquad bullet quad$ Construct $f$ so that $displaystyle lim_{x rightarrow 1} f(x) = pm infty$



    $qquad bullet quad$ Construct $f$ so that $displaystyle lim_{x to 1} f(x)$ does not exist



    Note that if $displaystyle lim_{x to 1} f(x)$ exists, you can get a continuous extension by taking $f(1)$ to be that limit. Indeed, $displaystyle lim_{x to c} f(x) = f(c)$ is literally one of the definitions for continuity at the point $x=c$.



    The first bullet is ruled out by the stipulation that $f$ be bounded, so moving on to the second bullet, we need to make sure $displaystyle lim_{x to 1} f(x)$ does not exist. One way of doing this (the only way I believe) is to have $f$ oscillate infinitely rapidly as $x to 1$. It looks like this is what you were trying to exploit, and what José Carlos Santos did (+1) in his post: $displaystyle f(x) = cos left(frac{1}{1-x} right)$.



    $qquad qquad qquad qquad$ enter image description here






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      2 Answers
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      2 Answers
      2






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      4












      $begingroup$

      Take $f(x)=cosleft(frac1{1-x}right)$. If it was uniformly continuous, then, for each $varepsilon>0$, there would be some $delta>0$ such that $lvert x-yrvert<deltaimpliesbigllvert f(x)-f(y)bigrrvert<varepsilon$. But this is not true. Take $varepsilon=1$. Since there are values of $x$ arbitrarily close to $1$ such that $f(x)=1$ and there are values of $x$ arbitrarily close to $1$ such that $f(x)=-1$, then, no matter how small $delta$ is, you will always be able to find examples of numbers $x,yin[0,1)$ such that $lvert x-yrvert<delta$ and that $bigllvert f(x)-f(y)bigrrvert=2>varepsilon$






      share|cite|improve this answer









      $endgroup$


















        4












        $begingroup$

        Take $f(x)=cosleft(frac1{1-x}right)$. If it was uniformly continuous, then, for each $varepsilon>0$, there would be some $delta>0$ such that $lvert x-yrvert<deltaimpliesbigllvert f(x)-f(y)bigrrvert<varepsilon$. But this is not true. Take $varepsilon=1$. Since there are values of $x$ arbitrarily close to $1$ such that $f(x)=1$ and there are values of $x$ arbitrarily close to $1$ such that $f(x)=-1$, then, no matter how small $delta$ is, you will always be able to find examples of numbers $x,yin[0,1)$ such that $lvert x-yrvert<delta$ and that $bigllvert f(x)-f(y)bigrrvert=2>varepsilon$






        share|cite|improve this answer









        $endgroup$
















          4












          4








          4





          $begingroup$

          Take $f(x)=cosleft(frac1{1-x}right)$. If it was uniformly continuous, then, for each $varepsilon>0$, there would be some $delta>0$ such that $lvert x-yrvert<deltaimpliesbigllvert f(x)-f(y)bigrrvert<varepsilon$. But this is not true. Take $varepsilon=1$. Since there are values of $x$ arbitrarily close to $1$ such that $f(x)=1$ and there are values of $x$ arbitrarily close to $1$ such that $f(x)=-1$, then, no matter how small $delta$ is, you will always be able to find examples of numbers $x,yin[0,1)$ such that $lvert x-yrvert<delta$ and that $bigllvert f(x)-f(y)bigrrvert=2>varepsilon$






          share|cite|improve this answer









          $endgroup$



          Take $f(x)=cosleft(frac1{1-x}right)$. If it was uniformly continuous, then, for each $varepsilon>0$, there would be some $delta>0$ such that $lvert x-yrvert<deltaimpliesbigllvert f(x)-f(y)bigrrvert<varepsilon$. But this is not true. Take $varepsilon=1$. Since there are values of $x$ arbitrarily close to $1$ such that $f(x)=1$ and there are values of $x$ arbitrarily close to $1$ such that $f(x)=-1$, then, no matter how small $delta$ is, you will always be able to find examples of numbers $x,yin[0,1)$ such that $lvert x-yrvert<delta$ and that $bigllvert f(x)-f(y)bigrrvert=2>varepsilon$







          share|cite|improve this answer












          share|cite|improve this answer



          share|cite|improve this answer










          answered 18 hours ago









          José Carlos SantosJosé Carlos Santos

          173k23133241




          173k23133241























              4












              $begingroup$

              Here's some intuition:



              The Heine-Cantor theorem tells us that any function between two metric spaces that is continuous on a compact set is also uniformly continuous on that set (see here for discussion). Next, if $f:X rightarrow Y$ is a uniformly continuous function, it is easy to show that the restriction of $f$ to any subset of $X$ is itself uniformly continuous*. Therefore, the functions $[0,1) to mathbb{R}$ that are continuous but not uniformly continuous are those functions that cannot be extended so as to be continuous on $[0,1]$.



              For example, consider the function $f:[0,1) to mathbb{R}$ defined such that $f(x) = x$. We can extend $f$ to $[0,1]$ by defining $f(1) = 1$, and this extension is a continuous function over a compact set (hence it is uniformly continuous). So the restriction of this extension to $[0,1)$—i.e. the original function—is necessarily also uniformly continuous per (*) above.



              How can we find a continuous function on $[0,1)$ that cannot be continuously extended to $[0,1]$? There are two ways:



              $qquad bullet quad$ Construct $f$ so that $displaystyle lim_{x rightarrow 1} f(x) = pm infty$



              $qquad bullet quad$ Construct $f$ so that $displaystyle lim_{x to 1} f(x)$ does not exist



              Note that if $displaystyle lim_{x to 1} f(x)$ exists, you can get a continuous extension by taking $f(1)$ to be that limit. Indeed, $displaystyle lim_{x to c} f(x) = f(c)$ is literally one of the definitions for continuity at the point $x=c$.



              The first bullet is ruled out by the stipulation that $f$ be bounded, so moving on to the second bullet, we need to make sure $displaystyle lim_{x to 1} f(x)$ does not exist. One way of doing this (the only way I believe) is to have $f$ oscillate infinitely rapidly as $x to 1$. It looks like this is what you were trying to exploit, and what José Carlos Santos did (+1) in his post: $displaystyle f(x) = cos left(frac{1}{1-x} right)$.



              $qquad qquad qquad qquad$ enter image description here






              share|cite|improve this answer











              $endgroup$


















                4












                $begingroup$

                Here's some intuition:



                The Heine-Cantor theorem tells us that any function between two metric spaces that is continuous on a compact set is also uniformly continuous on that set (see here for discussion). Next, if $f:X rightarrow Y$ is a uniformly continuous function, it is easy to show that the restriction of $f$ to any subset of $X$ is itself uniformly continuous*. Therefore, the functions $[0,1) to mathbb{R}$ that are continuous but not uniformly continuous are those functions that cannot be extended so as to be continuous on $[0,1]$.



                For example, consider the function $f:[0,1) to mathbb{R}$ defined such that $f(x) = x$. We can extend $f$ to $[0,1]$ by defining $f(1) = 1$, and this extension is a continuous function over a compact set (hence it is uniformly continuous). So the restriction of this extension to $[0,1)$—i.e. the original function—is necessarily also uniformly continuous per (*) above.



                How can we find a continuous function on $[0,1)$ that cannot be continuously extended to $[0,1]$? There are two ways:



                $qquad bullet quad$ Construct $f$ so that $displaystyle lim_{x rightarrow 1} f(x) = pm infty$



                $qquad bullet quad$ Construct $f$ so that $displaystyle lim_{x to 1} f(x)$ does not exist



                Note that if $displaystyle lim_{x to 1} f(x)$ exists, you can get a continuous extension by taking $f(1)$ to be that limit. Indeed, $displaystyle lim_{x to c} f(x) = f(c)$ is literally one of the definitions for continuity at the point $x=c$.



                The first bullet is ruled out by the stipulation that $f$ be bounded, so moving on to the second bullet, we need to make sure $displaystyle lim_{x to 1} f(x)$ does not exist. One way of doing this (the only way I believe) is to have $f$ oscillate infinitely rapidly as $x to 1$. It looks like this is what you were trying to exploit, and what José Carlos Santos did (+1) in his post: $displaystyle f(x) = cos left(frac{1}{1-x} right)$.



                $qquad qquad qquad qquad$ enter image description here






                share|cite|improve this answer











                $endgroup$
















                  4












                  4








                  4





                  $begingroup$

                  Here's some intuition:



                  The Heine-Cantor theorem tells us that any function between two metric spaces that is continuous on a compact set is also uniformly continuous on that set (see here for discussion). Next, if $f:X rightarrow Y$ is a uniformly continuous function, it is easy to show that the restriction of $f$ to any subset of $X$ is itself uniformly continuous*. Therefore, the functions $[0,1) to mathbb{R}$ that are continuous but not uniformly continuous are those functions that cannot be extended so as to be continuous on $[0,1]$.



                  For example, consider the function $f:[0,1) to mathbb{R}$ defined such that $f(x) = x$. We can extend $f$ to $[0,1]$ by defining $f(1) = 1$, and this extension is a continuous function over a compact set (hence it is uniformly continuous). So the restriction of this extension to $[0,1)$—i.e. the original function—is necessarily also uniformly continuous per (*) above.



                  How can we find a continuous function on $[0,1)$ that cannot be continuously extended to $[0,1]$? There are two ways:



                  $qquad bullet quad$ Construct $f$ so that $displaystyle lim_{x rightarrow 1} f(x) = pm infty$



                  $qquad bullet quad$ Construct $f$ so that $displaystyle lim_{x to 1} f(x)$ does not exist



                  Note that if $displaystyle lim_{x to 1} f(x)$ exists, you can get a continuous extension by taking $f(1)$ to be that limit. Indeed, $displaystyle lim_{x to c} f(x) = f(c)$ is literally one of the definitions for continuity at the point $x=c$.



                  The first bullet is ruled out by the stipulation that $f$ be bounded, so moving on to the second bullet, we need to make sure $displaystyle lim_{x to 1} f(x)$ does not exist. One way of doing this (the only way I believe) is to have $f$ oscillate infinitely rapidly as $x to 1$. It looks like this is what you were trying to exploit, and what José Carlos Santos did (+1) in his post: $displaystyle f(x) = cos left(frac{1}{1-x} right)$.



                  $qquad qquad qquad qquad$ enter image description here






                  share|cite|improve this answer











                  $endgroup$



                  Here's some intuition:



                  The Heine-Cantor theorem tells us that any function between two metric spaces that is continuous on a compact set is also uniformly continuous on that set (see here for discussion). Next, if $f:X rightarrow Y$ is a uniformly continuous function, it is easy to show that the restriction of $f$ to any subset of $X$ is itself uniformly continuous*. Therefore, the functions $[0,1) to mathbb{R}$ that are continuous but not uniformly continuous are those functions that cannot be extended so as to be continuous on $[0,1]$.



                  For example, consider the function $f:[0,1) to mathbb{R}$ defined such that $f(x) = x$. We can extend $f$ to $[0,1]$ by defining $f(1) = 1$, and this extension is a continuous function over a compact set (hence it is uniformly continuous). So the restriction of this extension to $[0,1)$—i.e. the original function—is necessarily also uniformly continuous per (*) above.



                  How can we find a continuous function on $[0,1)$ that cannot be continuously extended to $[0,1]$? There are two ways:



                  $qquad bullet quad$ Construct $f$ so that $displaystyle lim_{x rightarrow 1} f(x) = pm infty$



                  $qquad bullet quad$ Construct $f$ so that $displaystyle lim_{x to 1} f(x)$ does not exist



                  Note that if $displaystyle lim_{x to 1} f(x)$ exists, you can get a continuous extension by taking $f(1)$ to be that limit. Indeed, $displaystyle lim_{x to c} f(x) = f(c)$ is literally one of the definitions for continuity at the point $x=c$.



                  The first bullet is ruled out by the stipulation that $f$ be bounded, so moving on to the second bullet, we need to make sure $displaystyle lim_{x to 1} f(x)$ does not exist. One way of doing this (the only way I believe) is to have $f$ oscillate infinitely rapidly as $x to 1$. It looks like this is what you were trying to exploit, and what José Carlos Santos did (+1) in his post: $displaystyle f(x) = cos left(frac{1}{1-x} right)$.



                  $qquad qquad qquad qquad$ enter image description here







                  share|cite|improve this answer














                  share|cite|improve this answer



                  share|cite|improve this answer








                  edited 10 hours ago

























                  answered 18 hours ago









                  Kaj HansenKaj Hansen

                  27.7k43880




                  27.7k43880






























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