Is Angular momentum conserved in Impure rolling
$begingroup$
In a situation where a disk is rolling WITH slipping on the ground i.e velocity of centre of mass is greater than $romega$, is angular momentum conserved about a point on the ground.
What confuses me is that friction decelerates the disk to make $v_{com} = romega$ and in this process some velocity is lost so according to formula of angular momentum $L=mvr$,about a point on the ground $L$ decreases as $v$ decreases.
But since friction is also acting about a point on the ground, torque about a point on the ground is zero, so then how would angular momentum change.
edit:this question is about applying conservation of angular momentum in rolling with slipping.
newtonian-mechanics angular-momentum rotational-dynamics
edited 13 hours ago
Qmechanic♦
106k121941217
asked 17 hours ago
Lelouche LamperougeLelouche Lamperouge
384
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Lelouche Lamperouge is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
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add a comment |
$begingroup$
In a situation where a disk is rolling WITH slipping on the ground i.e velocity of centre of mass is greater than $romega$, is angular momentum conserved about a point on the ground.
What confuses me is that friction decelerates the disk to make $v_{com} = romega$ and in this process some velocity is lost so according to formula of angular momentum $L=mvr$,about a point on the ground $L$ decreases as $v$ decreases.
But since friction is also acting about a point on the ground, torque about a point on the ground is zero, so then how would angular momentum change.
edit:this question is about applying conservation of angular momentum in rolling with slipping.
newtonian-mechanics angular-momentum rotational-dynamics
edited 13 hours ago
Qmechanic♦
106k121941217
asked 17 hours ago
Lelouche LamperougeLelouche Lamperouge
384
New contributor
Lelouche Lamperouge is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.
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1
$begingroup$
Possible duplicate of Is $v$ not always equal to $omega r$ in angular motion?
$endgroup$
– Mick
16 hours ago
$begingroup$
Only if the sum of the external torque is zero the angular momentum is conserved
$endgroup$
– Eli
10 hours ago
add a comment |
$begingroup$
In a situation where a disk is rolling WITH slipping on the ground i.e velocity of centre of mass is greater than $romega$, is angular momentum conserved about a point on the ground.
What confuses me is that friction decelerates the disk to make $v_{com} = romega$ and in this process some velocity is lost so according to formula of angular momentum $L=mvr$,about a point on the ground $L$ decreases as $v$ decreases.
But since friction is also acting about a point on the ground, torque about a point on the ground is zero, so then how would angular momentum change.
edit:this question is about applying conservation of angular momentum in rolling with slipping.
newtonian-mechanics angular-momentum rotational-dynamics
edited 13 hours ago
Qmechanic♦
106k121941217
asked 17 hours ago
Lelouche LamperougeLelouche Lamperouge
384
New contributor
Lelouche Lamperouge is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.
$endgroup$
In a situation where a disk is rolling WITH slipping on the ground i.e velocity of centre of mass is greater than $romega$, is angular momentum conserved about a point on the ground.
What confuses me is that friction decelerates the disk to make $v_{com} = romega$ and in this process some velocity is lost so according to formula of angular momentum $L=mvr$,about a point on the ground $L$ decreases as $v$ decreases.
But since friction is also acting about a point on the ground, torque about a point on the ground is zero, so then how would angular momentum change.
edit:this question is about applying conservation of angular momentum in rolling with slipping.
newtonian-mechanics angular-momentum rotational-dynamics
newtonian-mechanics angular-momentum rotational-dynamics
edited 13 hours ago
Qmechanic♦
106k121941217
asked 17 hours ago
Lelouche LamperougeLelouche Lamperouge
384
New contributor
Lelouche Lamperouge is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.
edited 13 hours ago
Qmechanic♦
106k121941217
asked 17 hours ago
Lelouche LamperougeLelouche Lamperouge
384
New contributor
Lelouche Lamperouge is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.
edited 13 hours ago
Qmechanic♦
106k121941217
edited 13 hours ago
Qmechanic♦
106k121941217
edited 13 hours ago
Qmechanic♦
106k121941217
106k121941217
asked 17 hours ago
Lelouche LamperougeLelouche Lamperouge
384
New contributor
Lelouche Lamperouge is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.
asked 17 hours ago
Lelouche LamperougeLelouche Lamperouge
384
asked 17 hours ago
Lelouche LamperougeLelouche Lamperouge
384
384
New contributor
Lelouche Lamperouge is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.
New contributor
Lelouche Lamperouge is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.
Lelouche Lamperouge is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.
1
$begingroup$
Possible duplicate of Is $v$ not always equal to $omega r$ in angular motion?
$endgroup$
– Mick
16 hours ago
$begingroup$
Only if the sum of the external torque is zero the angular momentum is conserved
$endgroup$
– Eli
10 hours ago
add a comment |
1
$begingroup$
Possible duplicate of Is $v$ not always equal to $omega r$ in angular motion?
$endgroup$
– Mick
16 hours ago
$begingroup$
Only if the sum of the external torque is zero the angular momentum is conserved
$endgroup$
– Eli
10 hours ago
1
1
$begingroup$
Possible duplicate of Is $v$ not always equal to $omega r$ in angular motion?
$endgroup$
– Mick
16 hours ago
$begingroup$
Possible duplicate of Is $v$ not always equal to $omega r$ in angular motion?
$endgroup$
– Mick
16 hours ago
$begingroup$
Only if the sum of the external torque is zero the angular momentum is conserved
$endgroup$
– Eli
10 hours ago
$begingroup$
Only if the sum of the external torque is zero the angular momentum is conserved
$endgroup$
– Eli
10 hours ago
add a comment |
1 Answer
1
active
oldest
votes
$begingroup$
If there is slipping and friction you now have to deal with an accelerating (non-inertial) frame of reference and axis of rotation.
To use Newton's laws of motion in the non-inertial frame of reference a pseudo-force has to be introduced which acts at the centre of mass, has a magnitude equal to the frictional force and acts in the opposite direction to the frictional force.
That pseudo-force produces a torque about the point of contact with the ground which changes the angular momentum of the disc about that point.
answered 14 hours ago
FarcherFarcher
50.7k338105
$endgroup$
$begingroup$
ohh that makes sense. thanks a lot :)
$endgroup$
– Lelouche Lamperouge
14 hours ago
$begingroup$
Where this pseudo-force comes from?
$endgroup$
– Eli
11 hours ago
$begingroup$
@Eli It is introduced so that Newton’s laws of motion can be used in a non-inertial frame of reference. It has no origin other than to make Newton’s laws work.
$endgroup$
– Farcher
11 hours ago
add a comment |
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1 Answer
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$begingroup$
If there is slipping and friction you now have to deal with an accelerating (non-inertial) frame of reference and axis of rotation.
To use Newton's laws of motion in the non-inertial frame of reference a pseudo-force has to be introduced which acts at the centre of mass, has a magnitude equal to the frictional force and acts in the opposite direction to the frictional force.
That pseudo-force produces a torque about the point of contact with the ground which changes the angular momentum of the disc about that point.
answered 14 hours ago
FarcherFarcher
50.7k338105
$endgroup$
$begingroup$
ohh that makes sense. thanks a lot :)
$endgroup$
– Lelouche Lamperouge
14 hours ago
$begingroup$
Where this pseudo-force comes from?
$endgroup$
– Eli
11 hours ago
$begingroup$
@Eli It is introduced so that Newton’s laws of motion can be used in a non-inertial frame of reference. It has no origin other than to make Newton’s laws work.
$endgroup$
– Farcher
11 hours ago
add a comment |
$begingroup$
If there is slipping and friction you now have to deal with an accelerating (non-inertial) frame of reference and axis of rotation.
To use Newton's laws of motion in the non-inertial frame of reference a pseudo-force has to be introduced which acts at the centre of mass, has a magnitude equal to the frictional force and acts in the opposite direction to the frictional force.
That pseudo-force produces a torque about the point of contact with the ground which changes the angular momentum of the disc about that point.
answered 14 hours ago
FarcherFarcher
50.7k338105
$endgroup$
$begingroup$
ohh that makes sense. thanks a lot :)
$endgroup$
– Lelouche Lamperouge
14 hours ago
$begingroup$
Where this pseudo-force comes from?
$endgroup$
– Eli
11 hours ago
$begingroup$
@Eli It is introduced so that Newton’s laws of motion can be used in a non-inertial frame of reference. It has no origin other than to make Newton’s laws work.
$endgroup$
– Farcher
11 hours ago
add a comment |
$begingroup$
If there is slipping and friction you now have to deal with an accelerating (non-inertial) frame of reference and axis of rotation.
To use Newton's laws of motion in the non-inertial frame of reference a pseudo-force has to be introduced which acts at the centre of mass, has a magnitude equal to the frictional force and acts in the opposite direction to the frictional force.
That pseudo-force produces a torque about the point of contact with the ground which changes the angular momentum of the disc about that point.
answered 14 hours ago
FarcherFarcher
50.7k338105
$endgroup$
If there is slipping and friction you now have to deal with an accelerating (non-inertial) frame of reference and axis of rotation.
To use Newton's laws of motion in the non-inertial frame of reference a pseudo-force has to be introduced which acts at the centre of mass, has a magnitude equal to the frictional force and acts in the opposite direction to the frictional force.
That pseudo-force produces a torque about the point of contact with the ground which changes the angular momentum of the disc about that point.
answered 14 hours ago
FarcherFarcher
50.7k338105
answered 14 hours ago
FarcherFarcher
50.7k338105
answered 14 hours ago
FarcherFarcher
50.7k338105
answered 14 hours ago
FarcherFarcher
50.7k338105
50.7k338105
$begingroup$
ohh that makes sense. thanks a lot :)
$endgroup$
– Lelouche Lamperouge
14 hours ago
$begingroup$
Where this pseudo-force comes from?
$endgroup$
– Eli
11 hours ago
$begingroup$
@Eli It is introduced so that Newton’s laws of motion can be used in a non-inertial frame of reference. It has no origin other than to make Newton’s laws work.
$endgroup$
– Farcher
11 hours ago
add a comment |
$begingroup$
ohh that makes sense. thanks a lot :)
$endgroup$
– Lelouche Lamperouge
14 hours ago
$begingroup$
Where this pseudo-force comes from?
$endgroup$
– Eli
11 hours ago
$begingroup$
@Eli It is introduced so that Newton’s laws of motion can be used in a non-inertial frame of reference. It has no origin other than to make Newton’s laws work.
$endgroup$
– Farcher
11 hours ago
$begingroup$
ohh that makes sense. thanks a lot :)
$endgroup$
– Lelouche Lamperouge
14 hours ago
$begingroup$
ohh that makes sense. thanks a lot :)
$endgroup$
– Lelouche Lamperouge
14 hours ago
$begingroup$
Where this pseudo-force comes from?
$endgroup$
– Eli
11 hours ago
$begingroup$
Where this pseudo-force comes from?
$endgroup$
– Eli
11 hours ago
$begingroup$
@Eli It is introduced so that Newton’s laws of motion can be used in a non-inertial frame of reference. It has no origin other than to make Newton’s laws work.
$endgroup$
– Farcher
11 hours ago
$begingroup$
@Eli It is introduced so that Newton’s laws of motion can be used in a non-inertial frame of reference. It has no origin other than to make Newton’s laws work.
$endgroup$
– Farcher
11 hours ago
add a comment |
Lelouche Lamperouge is a new contributor. Be nice, and check out our Code of Conduct.
Lelouche Lamperouge is a new contributor. Be nice, and check out our Code of Conduct.
Lelouche Lamperouge is a new contributor. Be nice, and check out our Code of Conduct.
Lelouche Lamperouge is a new contributor. Be nice, and check out our Code of Conduct.
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1
$begingroup$
Possible duplicate of Is $v$ not always equal to $omega r$ in angular motion?
$endgroup$
– Mick
16 hours ago
$begingroup$
Only if the sum of the external torque is zero the angular momentum is conserved
$endgroup$
– Eli
10 hours ago