“Seemed to had” is it correct?





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Here's a sentence I made up:



"He seemed to had not understood what I had said to him"



Is this sentence correct? I tried searching for similar sentences by putting quotation marks around 'seemed to had not', and out popped roughly 5-6 results, but that doesn't seem to be that many, especially because some of those could've been mistakes, and I couldn't find any questions like this.



Also, assuming it is correct, if I change the position of 'not', like so:



"He seemed to not had understood what I had said to him"



Would it still be grammatical?










share|improve this question























  • after to you need: the bare infinitive and perfect infinitive.

    – Lambie
    1 hour ago


















2















Here's a sentence I made up:



"He seemed to had not understood what I had said to him"



Is this sentence correct? I tried searching for similar sentences by putting quotation marks around 'seemed to had not', and out popped roughly 5-6 results, but that doesn't seem to be that many, especially because some of those could've been mistakes, and I couldn't find any questions like this.



Also, assuming it is correct, if I change the position of 'not', like so:



"He seemed to not had understood what I had said to him"



Would it still be grammatical?










share|improve this question























  • after to you need: the bare infinitive and perfect infinitive.

    – Lambie
    1 hour ago














2












2








2








Here's a sentence I made up:



"He seemed to had not understood what I had said to him"



Is this sentence correct? I tried searching for similar sentences by putting quotation marks around 'seemed to had not', and out popped roughly 5-6 results, but that doesn't seem to be that many, especially because some of those could've been mistakes, and I couldn't find any questions like this.



Also, assuming it is correct, if I change the position of 'not', like so:



"He seemed to not had understood what I had said to him"



Would it still be grammatical?










share|improve this question














Here's a sentence I made up:



"He seemed to had not understood what I had said to him"



Is this sentence correct? I tried searching for similar sentences by putting quotation marks around 'seemed to had not', and out popped roughly 5-6 results, but that doesn't seem to be that many, especially because some of those could've been mistakes, and I couldn't find any questions like this.



Also, assuming it is correct, if I change the position of 'not', like so:



"He seemed to not had understood what I had said to him"



Would it still be grammatical?







grammar grammaticality






share|improve this question













share|improve this question











share|improve this question




share|improve this question










asked 2 hours ago









FrostC0FrostC0

359210




359210













  • after to you need: the bare infinitive and perfect infinitive.

    – Lambie
    1 hour ago



















  • after to you need: the bare infinitive and perfect infinitive.

    – Lambie
    1 hour ago

















after to you need: the bare infinitive and perfect infinitive.

– Lambie
1 hour ago





after to you need: the bare infinitive and perfect infinitive.

– Lambie
1 hour ago










3 Answers
3






active

oldest

votes


















5














No matter where you put the "not", a statement with "to had" isn't grammatical. The construction you are using is "seem" + to-infinitive. The infinitive for the verb have/had is "to have", not "to had."



This is discussed in detail on the BBC "Learning English" website:




seem / appear to + infinitive



After seem and appear we often use a
to + infinitive construction ( or a perfect infinitive construction
for past events).

...




So what you should say is either of:




  1. He seemed not to have understood what I had said to him.


  2. He seemed to have not understood what I had said to him.


  3. He seemed to not have understood what I had said to him.



The "not" could really go in any of those 3 places, but the first possibility sounds smoother and more idiomatic. The last sentence sounds the least natural to me, even slightly awkward.






share|improve this answer


























  • The word order in sentences 2 and 3 has only become acceptable in the last 2 or 3 decades.

    – phoog
    2 hours ago













  • Thank you for the help!

    – FrostC0
    2 hours ago











  • @phoog: I don't think the sticklers ever objected to 2 particularly, though they certainly did to 3.

    – Colin Fine
    1 hour ago











  • @ColinFine in my experience it's not so much about sticklers as just the sentences that people would actually say or write.

    – phoog
    32 mins ago





















1














No,




He seemed to had not understood what I had said to him.




is not grammatical at all, and neither is your other construction.



Here's what you should use:




He seemed not to have understood what I had said to him.







share|improve this answer



















  • 1





    Could you explain why it's incorrect, if you don't mind of course.

    – FrostC0
    2 hours ago



















1














to has to be followed by a bare infinitive or perfect infinitive:



He seems to understand. [bare, present]



He seems to have understood. [perfect infinitive, past idea or tense]



The perfect infinitive is have + the past participle.






share|improve this answer
























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    3 Answers
    3






    active

    oldest

    votes








    3 Answers
    3






    active

    oldest

    votes









    active

    oldest

    votes






    active

    oldest

    votes









    5














    No matter where you put the "not", a statement with "to had" isn't grammatical. The construction you are using is "seem" + to-infinitive. The infinitive for the verb have/had is "to have", not "to had."



    This is discussed in detail on the BBC "Learning English" website:




    seem / appear to + infinitive



    After seem and appear we often use a
    to + infinitive construction ( or a perfect infinitive construction
    for past events).

    ...




    So what you should say is either of:




    1. He seemed not to have understood what I had said to him.


    2. He seemed to have not understood what I had said to him.


    3. He seemed to not have understood what I had said to him.



    The "not" could really go in any of those 3 places, but the first possibility sounds smoother and more idiomatic. The last sentence sounds the least natural to me, even slightly awkward.






    share|improve this answer


























    • The word order in sentences 2 and 3 has only become acceptable in the last 2 or 3 decades.

      – phoog
      2 hours ago













    • Thank you for the help!

      – FrostC0
      2 hours ago











    • @phoog: I don't think the sticklers ever objected to 2 particularly, though they certainly did to 3.

      – Colin Fine
      1 hour ago











    • @ColinFine in my experience it's not so much about sticklers as just the sentences that people would actually say or write.

      – phoog
      32 mins ago


















    5














    No matter where you put the "not", a statement with "to had" isn't grammatical. The construction you are using is "seem" + to-infinitive. The infinitive for the verb have/had is "to have", not "to had."



    This is discussed in detail on the BBC "Learning English" website:




    seem / appear to + infinitive



    After seem and appear we often use a
    to + infinitive construction ( or a perfect infinitive construction
    for past events).

    ...




    So what you should say is either of:




    1. He seemed not to have understood what I had said to him.


    2. He seemed to have not understood what I had said to him.


    3. He seemed to not have understood what I had said to him.



    The "not" could really go in any of those 3 places, but the first possibility sounds smoother and more idiomatic. The last sentence sounds the least natural to me, even slightly awkward.






    share|improve this answer


























    • The word order in sentences 2 and 3 has only become acceptable in the last 2 or 3 decades.

      – phoog
      2 hours ago













    • Thank you for the help!

      – FrostC0
      2 hours ago











    • @phoog: I don't think the sticklers ever objected to 2 particularly, though they certainly did to 3.

      – Colin Fine
      1 hour ago











    • @ColinFine in my experience it's not so much about sticklers as just the sentences that people would actually say or write.

      – phoog
      32 mins ago
















    5












    5








    5







    No matter where you put the "not", a statement with "to had" isn't grammatical. The construction you are using is "seem" + to-infinitive. The infinitive for the verb have/had is "to have", not "to had."



    This is discussed in detail on the BBC "Learning English" website:




    seem / appear to + infinitive



    After seem and appear we often use a
    to + infinitive construction ( or a perfect infinitive construction
    for past events).

    ...




    So what you should say is either of:




    1. He seemed not to have understood what I had said to him.


    2. He seemed to have not understood what I had said to him.


    3. He seemed to not have understood what I had said to him.



    The "not" could really go in any of those 3 places, but the first possibility sounds smoother and more idiomatic. The last sentence sounds the least natural to me, even slightly awkward.






    share|improve this answer















    No matter where you put the "not", a statement with "to had" isn't grammatical. The construction you are using is "seem" + to-infinitive. The infinitive for the verb have/had is "to have", not "to had."



    This is discussed in detail on the BBC "Learning English" website:




    seem / appear to + infinitive



    After seem and appear we often use a
    to + infinitive construction ( or a perfect infinitive construction
    for past events).

    ...




    So what you should say is either of:




    1. He seemed not to have understood what I had said to him.


    2. He seemed to have not understood what I had said to him.


    3. He seemed to not have understood what I had said to him.



    The "not" could really go in any of those 3 places, but the first possibility sounds smoother and more idiomatic. The last sentence sounds the least natural to me, even slightly awkward.







    share|improve this answer














    share|improve this answer



    share|improve this answer








    edited 2 hours ago

























    answered 2 hours ago









    Lorel C.Lorel C.

    4,7221510




    4,7221510













    • The word order in sentences 2 and 3 has only become acceptable in the last 2 or 3 decades.

      – phoog
      2 hours ago













    • Thank you for the help!

      – FrostC0
      2 hours ago











    • @phoog: I don't think the sticklers ever objected to 2 particularly, though they certainly did to 3.

      – Colin Fine
      1 hour ago











    • @ColinFine in my experience it's not so much about sticklers as just the sentences that people would actually say or write.

      – phoog
      32 mins ago





















    • The word order in sentences 2 and 3 has only become acceptable in the last 2 or 3 decades.

      – phoog
      2 hours ago













    • Thank you for the help!

      – FrostC0
      2 hours ago











    • @phoog: I don't think the sticklers ever objected to 2 particularly, though they certainly did to 3.

      – Colin Fine
      1 hour ago











    • @ColinFine in my experience it's not so much about sticklers as just the sentences that people would actually say or write.

      – phoog
      32 mins ago



















    The word order in sentences 2 and 3 has only become acceptable in the last 2 or 3 decades.

    – phoog
    2 hours ago







    The word order in sentences 2 and 3 has only become acceptable in the last 2 or 3 decades.

    – phoog
    2 hours ago















    Thank you for the help!

    – FrostC0
    2 hours ago





    Thank you for the help!

    – FrostC0
    2 hours ago













    @phoog: I don't think the sticklers ever objected to 2 particularly, though they certainly did to 3.

    – Colin Fine
    1 hour ago





    @phoog: I don't think the sticklers ever objected to 2 particularly, though they certainly did to 3.

    – Colin Fine
    1 hour ago













    @ColinFine in my experience it's not so much about sticklers as just the sentences that people would actually say or write.

    – phoog
    32 mins ago







    @ColinFine in my experience it's not so much about sticklers as just the sentences that people would actually say or write.

    – phoog
    32 mins ago















    1














    No,




    He seemed to had not understood what I had said to him.




    is not grammatical at all, and neither is your other construction.



    Here's what you should use:




    He seemed not to have understood what I had said to him.







    share|improve this answer



















    • 1





      Could you explain why it's incorrect, if you don't mind of course.

      – FrostC0
      2 hours ago
















    1














    No,




    He seemed to had not understood what I had said to him.




    is not grammatical at all, and neither is your other construction.



    Here's what you should use:




    He seemed not to have understood what I had said to him.







    share|improve this answer



















    • 1





      Could you explain why it's incorrect, if you don't mind of course.

      – FrostC0
      2 hours ago














    1












    1








    1







    No,




    He seemed to had not understood what I had said to him.




    is not grammatical at all, and neither is your other construction.



    Here's what you should use:




    He seemed not to have understood what I had said to him.







    share|improve this answer













    No,




    He seemed to had not understood what I had said to him.




    is not grammatical at all, and neither is your other construction.



    Here's what you should use:




    He seemed not to have understood what I had said to him.








    share|improve this answer












    share|improve this answer



    share|improve this answer










    answered 2 hours ago









    RobustoRobusto

    12.5k23044




    12.5k23044








    • 1





      Could you explain why it's incorrect, if you don't mind of course.

      – FrostC0
      2 hours ago














    • 1





      Could you explain why it's incorrect, if you don't mind of course.

      – FrostC0
      2 hours ago








    1




    1





    Could you explain why it's incorrect, if you don't mind of course.

    – FrostC0
    2 hours ago





    Could you explain why it's incorrect, if you don't mind of course.

    – FrostC0
    2 hours ago











    1














    to has to be followed by a bare infinitive or perfect infinitive:



    He seems to understand. [bare, present]



    He seems to have understood. [perfect infinitive, past idea or tense]



    The perfect infinitive is have + the past participle.






    share|improve this answer




























      1














      to has to be followed by a bare infinitive or perfect infinitive:



      He seems to understand. [bare, present]



      He seems to have understood. [perfect infinitive, past idea or tense]



      The perfect infinitive is have + the past participle.






      share|improve this answer


























        1












        1








        1







        to has to be followed by a bare infinitive or perfect infinitive:



        He seems to understand. [bare, present]



        He seems to have understood. [perfect infinitive, past idea or tense]



        The perfect infinitive is have + the past participle.






        share|improve this answer













        to has to be followed by a bare infinitive or perfect infinitive:



        He seems to understand. [bare, present]



        He seems to have understood. [perfect infinitive, past idea or tense]



        The perfect infinitive is have + the past participle.







        share|improve this answer












        share|improve this answer



        share|improve this answer










        answered 1 hour ago









        LambieLambie

        17.6k1540




        17.6k1540






























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